Why do I care? I care about this statement mostly because I want to think of the notion of hypersurfaces of \mathbb{P}^{n} over a field k somewhat intrinsically. That is, if I have an integral closed subscheme H \hookrightarrow \mathbb{P}^{n} with codimension 1 and degree d, then I want to say there is a homogenous polynomial f \in k[x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}] of degree d such that H \simeq \mathrm{Proj}(k[x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}]/(f))
as k-schemes. Take any standard affine open subset U_{i} := D_{+}(x_{i}) \simeq \mathrm{Spec}(k[x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}])
such that H \cap U_{i} \neq \emptyset. Since H \cap U_{i} is of codimension 1 in U_{i}, there must be a (monic) nonzero f_{i} \in k[x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}] such that H \cap U_{i} = \mathrm{Spec}(k[x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}]/(f_{i})).
Since H is the closure of H \cap U_{i} in \mathbb{P}^{n}, it follows (e.g., from a previous posting) that topologically, we have V_{+}(f) = H,
where f(x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}) = x_{i}^{\deg(f_{i})}f_{i}(x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}), where \deg(f_{i}) denotes the maximum among the degrees of the monomials of f_{i} in x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}, except x_{i}/x_{i} = 1. However, to show that H \simeq \mathrm{Proj}(k[x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}]/(f)),
we also need to check that x_{i}^{\deg(f_{i})}f_{i}(x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}) = x_{j}^{\deg(f_{j})}f_{j}(x_{0}/x_{j}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{j})
for all i, j such that U_{i} and U_{j} both intersect H, which holds when f is irreducible.
Geometric argument. If f is not irreducible, then f = gh for some homogeneous polynomials g, h with positive degrees. (To see this, decompose g and h into homogeneous pieces and argue by degree.) Thus, we would have V_{+}(f) = V_{+}(g) \cup V_{+}(h).
Since V(f_{i}) is irreducible, we know V_{+}(f) = \overline{V(f_{i})} is an irreducible topological space, at least one of V_{+}(g) and V_{+}(h) is empty. This implies that one of \sqrt{(g)} and \sqrt{(h)} is equal to (x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}). Without loss of generality, say \sqrt{(g)} = (x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}), which is a maximal ideal. Then we have \{(x_{0}, \dots, x_{n})\} = V(x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}) = V(g) in \mathbb{A}^{n+1}, although V(g) has dimension \geq n + 1 - 1 = n \geq 1, by Krull's principal ideal theorem. This is a contradiction as the singleton of a closed point has dimension 0.
Combinatorial argument. If f is not irreducible, then f = gh for some homogeneous polynomials g, h with positive degrees. We may assume that g, h are monic since k is a field. Then \begin{align*}f_{i}(x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}) &= x_{i}^{-\deg(f_{i})}f(x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}) \\ &= g(x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}) h(x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}).\end{align*}
Since f_{i} is irreducible, at least one of the polynomials on the right-hand side must be constant in k[x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}], which necessarily mean that it is 1 (due to the monic assumption). Without loss of generality, say g(x_{0}/x_{i}, \dots, x_{n}/x_{i}) = 1. Then we have g(x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}) = x_{i}^{\deg(g)}, so f(x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}) = x_{i}^{\deg(g)}h(x_{0}, \dots, x_{n}).
Now, note from the definition of f that it cannot vanish at the homogenizing variable x_{i}. Thus, we must have \deg(g) = 0, so f must be irreducible.
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